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CRISC Real Exam Question Answers Updated [May 26, 2026]
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) exam is a certification exam designed for professionals who have expertise in the risk management and information systems control fields. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is a globally recognized standard for individuals who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and evaluating the risks associated with information systems. The CRISC certification is intended for individuals who work in large organizations, including government agencies, financial institutions, and other public and private sector organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 397
Which of the following BEST measures the operational effectiveness of risk management capabilities?
- A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
- B. Capability maturity models (CMMs)
- C. Metric thresholds
- D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Key performance indicators (KPIs) provide insights into the operational effectiveness of the concept or capability that they monitor. Key Performance Indicators is a set of measures that a company or industry uses to measure and/or compare performance in terms of meeting their strategic and operational goals.
KPIs vary with company to company, depending on their priorities or performance criteria.
A company must establish its strategic and operational goals and then choose their KPIs which can best reflect those goals. For example, if a software company's goal is to have the fastest growth in its industry, its main performance indicator may be the measure of its annual revenue growth.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Capability maturity models (CMMs) assess the maturity of a concept or capability and do not provide insights into operational effectiveness.
B: Metric thresholds are decision or action points that are enacted when a KPI or KRI reports a specific value or set of values. It odes not provide any insights into operational effectiveness.
C: Key risk indicators (KRIs) only provide insights into potential risks that may exist or be realized within a concept or capability that they monitor. Key Risk Indicators are the prime monitoring indicators of the enterprise. KRIs are highly relevant and possess a high probability of predicting or indicating important risk.
KRIs help in avoiding excessively large number of risk indicators to manage and report that a large enterprise may have.
NEW QUESTION # 398
An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be
revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?
- A. Contractual changes with customers
- B. New potentially disruptive scenarios
- C. Ownership assignment for controls
- D. Variances in recovery times
Answer: B
Explanation:
When an organization restructures its business processes, the first step in revising the BCP is to identify new
potentially disruptive scenarios that may affect the continuity of the critical functions and processes. This can
be done by conducting a risk assessment or a business impact analysis (BIA) to determine the likelihood and
impact of various threats and vulnerabilities onthe organization's objectives and operations. By identifying
new potentially disruptive scenarios, the organization can then update its recovery strategies, objectives, and
plans accordingly.
References:
*ISACA, Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, 2019, p. 761
*ISACA, IT Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery Audit Program, 2021, p. 52
NEW QUESTION # 399
Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?
- A. Identification of threat sources
- B. Identification of threats
- C. Identification of assets
- D. Identification of vulnerabilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Asset identification is the most crucial and first step in the risk assessment process. Risk identification, assessment and evaluation (analysis) should always be clearly aligned to assets. Assets can be people, processes, infrastructure, information or applications.
NEW QUESTION # 400
What should be considered while developing obscure risk scenarios?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
- A. Recognition
- B. Controls
- C. Visibility
- D. Assessment methods
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The enterprise must consider risk that has not yet occurred and should develop scenarios around unlikely, obscure or non-historical events. Such scenarios can be developed by considering two things: Visibility Recognition For the fulfillment of this task enterprise must: Be in a position that it can observe anything going wrong Have the capability to recognize an observed event as something wrong
NEW QUESTION # 401
When an organization's risk appetite decreases, what is most likely to be impacted?
- A. Risk trends
- B. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
- C. Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
- D. Risk objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
A decrease in risk appetite typically results in tighter tolerances and thresholds for KRIs, as the organization becomes less willing to accept certain levels of risk. KPIs and risk objectives may also be impacted but are less directly tied to appetite shifts. Risk trends reflect historical data rather than appetite settings
NEW QUESTION # 402
Which of the following role carriers are responsible for setting up the risk governance process, establishing and maintaining a common risk view, making risk-aware business decisions, and setting the enterprise's risk culture?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Board of directors
- B. Chief financial officer (CFO)
- C. Senior management
- D. Human resources (HR)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The board of directors and senior management has the responsibility to set up the risk governance process, establish and maintain a common risk view, make risk-aware business decisions, and set the enterprise's risk culture.
Incorrect Answers:
B: CFO is the most senior official 0f the enterprise who is accountable for financial planning, record keeping, investor relations and financial risks. CFO is not responsible for responsible for setting up the risk governance process, establishing and maintaining a common risk view, making risk-aware business decisions, and setting the enterprise's risk culture.
C: Human resource is the most senior official of an enterprise who is accountable for planning and policies with respect to all human resources in that enterprise. HR is not responsible for risk related activities.
NEW QUESTION # 403
The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:
- A. documents possible countermeasures.
- B. is updated based upon significant events.
- C. is regularly audited.
- D. contains the risk assessment completion date.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, and owners. It is a living document that should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the risk environment and the status of the risk responses12. The best way to improve a risk register is to ensure that it is updated based upon significant events, such as:
* New risks are identified or existing risks are eliminated
* Risk probabilities or impacts change due to internal or external factors
* Risk responses are implemented or modified
* Risk owners or stakeholders change
* Risk incidents or issues occur
* Risk thresholds or appetite change
* Risk reporting or communication requirements change
Updating the risk register based upon significant events can help to:
* Maintain the accuracy and relevance of the risk information
* Enhance the risk awareness and accountability of the risk owners and stakeholders
* Support the risk monitoring and reporting activities
* Facilitate the risk evaluation and decision-making processes
* Improve the risk management performance and maturity
References =
* Risk Register - Project Management Knowledge
* How to Create a Risk Register: A Step-by-Step Guide - ProjectManager.com
NEW QUESTION # 404
You are the project manager of GRT project. You discovered that by bringing on more qualified resources or by providing even better quality than originally planned, could result in reducing the amount of time required to complete the project. If your organization seizes this opportunity, it would be an example of what risk response?
- A. Enhance
- B. Share
- C. Exploit
- D. Accept
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The enhance strategy closely watches the probability or impact of the risk event to assure that the organization realizes the benefits. The primary point of this strategy is to attempt to increase the probability and/or impact of positive C: Risk acceptance means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs.
D: The share strategy is similar as transfer because in this a portion of the risk is shared with an external organization or another internal entity.
NEW QUESTION # 405
An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?
- A. Acceptance
- B. Transfer
- C. Mitigation
- D. Avoidance
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 406
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?
- A. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers
- B. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
- C. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
- D. Testing the DLP rule change control process
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data loss prevention (DLP) control is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. A DLP control is used to prevent sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental1. The best way to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data is to test the transmission of credit card numbers. This is a technique to verify that the DLP control can successfully identify and block the credit card data when it is sent or received through various channels, such as email, messaging, or file transfers. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers can help to evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the DLP control, as well as to identify and correct any false positives or false negatives. The other options are not the best ways to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data, although they may be helpful and complementary. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers is a technique to monitor and analyze the DLP control activities and incidents, such as who, what, when, where, and how the data was transferred.
However, reviewing logs is a reactive and passive approach, while testing the transmission is a proactive and active approach. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers is a technique to set up the DLP control rules and policies, such as defining the data patterns, the detection methods, and the response actions.
However, configuring the DLP control is a prerequisite and a preparation step, while testing the transmission is a validation and a verification step. Testing the DLP rule change control process is a technique to ensure that the DLP control rules and policies are updated and maintained in a controlled and coordinated manner, such as obtaining approval, documenting the changes, testing the changes, and communicating the changes. However, testing the DLP rule change control process is a quality and governance step, while testing the transmission is a performance and functionality step. References = What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? | Digital Guardian1; CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1652; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 833
NEW QUESTION # 407
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?
- A. To monitor the achievement of set objectives
- B. To identify control vulnerabilities
- C. To measure business exposure to risk
- D. To raise awareness of operational issues
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 408
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?
- A. Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite
- B. Risk action plans are approved by senior management.
- C. Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.
- D. Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register
Answer: A
Explanation:
An effective risk management program is a systematic and consistent process of identifying, analyzing,
evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks that may affect the achievement of the organization'
s objectives12.
The best indication of an effective risk management program is that the residual risk, which is the risk
remaining after risk treatment, is within the organizational risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk
that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives12.
This indicates that the organization has successfully implemented appropriate risk responses that align with its
risk strategy and criteria, and that the organization is able to balance the potential benefits and costs of taking
risks12.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather components or outcomes of an effective risk
management program. For example:
Risk action plans are approved by senior management is an outcome of an effective risk management program
that demonstrates the commitment and accountability of the leadership for risk management12.
Mitigating controls are designed and implemented is a component of an effective risk management program
that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk event12.
Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register is a component of an effective risk management program that
involves documenting and updating the risk information and status12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
NEW QUESTION # 409
You are the project manager of GHT project. You want to perform post-project review of your project. What is the BEST time to perform post-project review by you and your project development team to access the effectiveness of the project?
- A. Project is about to complete
- B. Project is completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period
- C. Immediately after the completion of the project
- D. During the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project development team and appropriate end users perform a post-project review jointly after the project has been completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period to assess its effectiveness.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The post-project review of project for accessing effectiveness cannot be done during the project as effectiveness can only evaluated after setting the project in process of production.
C: It is not done immediately after the completion of the project as its effectiveness cannot be measured until the system has been in production for certain time period.
D: Post-project review for evaluating the effectiveness of the project can only be done after the completion of the project and the project is in production phase.
NEW QUESTION # 410
From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?
- A. The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster
- B. All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).
- C. Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.
- D. All business-critical systems are successfully tested.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario that evaluates the effectiveness and readiness of the disaster recovery plan. The main purpose of a disaster recovery test is to ensure that the organization can resume its normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster, with minimal or no data loss. Therefore, the most important objective of a disaster recovery test from a business perspective is to verify that all critical data can be recovered within the RTOs, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the data and systems after a disaster. If the RTOs are not met, the organization may face significant financial, operational, and reputational losses. The other options are not the most important objectives of a disaster recovery test, although they may be beneficial outcomes. Gaining assurance that the organization can recover from a disaster is a subjective and qualitative goal, while recovering data within RTOs is a measurable and quantitative goal. Discovering errors in the disaster recovery process is a valuable result of a disaster recovery test, but it is not the primary objective. The objective is to correct the errors and improve the process, not just to find them. Testing all business critical systems is a necessary step in a disaster recovery test, but it is not the ultimate goal. The goal is to ensure that the systems can be restored and function properly within the RTOs.
References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 572
NEW QUESTION # 411
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?
- A. Review security logs.
- B. Perform a root cause analysis.
- C. Perform a penetration test.
- D. Conduct a threat analysis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the best way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment is to perform a penetration test, which is a type of security testing that simulates an attack on the IT assets and processes to exploit the identified vulnerabilities and evaluate the potential impact and severity of the attack. Performing a penetration test helps to:
Confirm the existence and exploitability of the vulnerabilities detected by the vulnerability assessment Measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing security controls and countermeasures Identify and prioritize the risks and gaps in the security posture of the IT assets and processes Recommend and implement appropriate remediation and mitigation actions to address the vulnerabilities and risks Enhance the security awareness and resilience of the organization References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 36-371
NEW QUESTION # 412
The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:
- A. industry-specific regulatory requirements
- B. expertise available within the IT department
- C. the organization's risk culture
- D. benchmarking results against similar organizations
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 413
An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The
BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:
- A. calculating impact and likelihood.
- B. completing the controls catalog.
- C. identifying risk scenarios.
- D. determining the risk strategy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the risk register is a tool that records the results of risk
identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment. The risk register should be populated as soon as possible in
the risk management process, to capture and document the risks and their attributes. The best time for the risk
practitioner to start populating the risk register is when identifying risk scenarios, as this is the first step in the
risk identification process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential causes,
impacts, and responses of a risk event. Identifying risk scenarios helps to generate a comprehensive and
relevant list of risks that can be recorded in the risk register. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 191,
206.
NEW QUESTION # 414
The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:
- A. prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance
- B. define the IT risk framework for the organization
- C. populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting
- D. comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IT risk awareness program shouldprimarily ensure that employees and stakeholders understand and comply with the organization's risk and information security policies. ISACA highlights that an awareness program must reinforce policy understanding to drive compliant and secure behavior across the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 415
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?
- A. The organization's risk appetite statement
- B. Legal and regulatory requirements
- C. Organizational goals and objectives
- D. IT goals and objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most important factor for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy is the
organizational goals and objectives. The organizational goals and objectives are the statements that define the
purpose, direction, and desired outcomes of the organization. The organizational goals and objectives help to
align the IT strategy with the organization's mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT
strategy supports and enables the organization's performance and improvement. The organizational goals and
objectives also help to communicate and coordinate the IT strategy with the organization's stakeholders, such
as the board, management, business units, and IT functions, and to facilitate the IT decision-making and
reporting processes. The other options are not as important as the organizational goals and objectives,
although they may be related to the IT strategy. IT goals and objectives, the organization's risk appetite
statement, and legal and regulatory requirements are all factors that could affect the feasibility and
sustainability of the IT strategy, but they do not necessarily reflect or influence the organization's purpose,
direction, and desired outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
NEW QUESTION # 416
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?
- A. Assign process owners to key risk areas.
- B. Obtain independent risk assessments.
- C. Create accurate process narratives.
- D. Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk is to assign process owners to key risk
areas. Process owners are the persons or entities that have the authority andresponsibility to manage a specific
process or a group of related processes. Process owners help to identify, assess, and respond to the risks
associated with the process, and to monitor and report on the process performance and improvement. Process
owners also help to communicate and coordinate the process management activities with the relevant
stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Assigning process owners to
key risk areas helps to ensure accountability for managing risk, because it helps to define and clarify the roles
and responsibilities of the process owners, and to establish and enforce the expectations and standards for the
process owners. Assigning process owners to key risk areas also helps to measure and evaluate the
effectiveness and efficiency of the process owners, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the
process management activities. The other options are not as effective as assigning process owners to key risk
areas, although they may be related to the risk management process. Obtaining independent risk assessments,
assigning incident response action plan responsibilities, and creating accurate process narratives are all
activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily ensure
accountability for managing risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
NEW QUESTION # 417
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